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Greg Logan
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Post by Greg Logan »

[Moderator's Note: This post was split from the original topic Denial of Christ's Pre-Existence, or Socinianism]

I despise the "Socinian" title - he was painfully late.

How about Petrine? Acts 2:22, 36 perfectly sum this up - and confirm to his first several sermons in Acts

22 Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:
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TJ
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Re: Denial of Christ's Pre-Existence, or Socinianism

Post by TJ »

Greg Logan wrote:I despise the "Socinian" title - he was painfully late.

How about Petrine?
I can sympathize with the frustration over labels. In fact, throughout history most 'unorthodox' Christian groups were labeled in such a way as to marginalize them, typically naming them after a unique belief held by the group or after a prominent leader within the movement. Thus around the time of the Reformation you have the emergence of so-called Lutherans, Calvinists, Socinians, Anabaptists, etc. Often such groups eventually embrace the names attributed to them.
Greg Logan
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Joined: Mon Apr 18, 2016 3:31 am
Re: Denial of Christ's Pre-Existence, or Socinianism

Post by Greg Logan »

TJ

Well, this is quite fascinating isn't it.... Somehow I stumbled on this site a few years ago....

What do you think - is Petrine Christology not unreasonable based on Acts2:22ff and the next 4 - 5 sermons that Peter gives?? Likewise IPet1:20, etc.


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Greg
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TJ
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Post by TJ »

Hi Greg,

If Petrine Christology is how you'd like to refer to your view, I can respect that. As for me, I'm still exploring how such scriptures require it.

Incidentally, I'm wondering what the phrase found at 1 Peter 1:20, "the foundation of the world", means to you.
Greg Logan
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Joined: Mon Apr 18, 2016 3:31 am
Re: Labels

Post by Greg Logan »

TJ

Sorry to miss following up on your post - I obviously omitted checking the Reply box.

re: Meaning of "20 προεγνωσμένου μὲν πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου, φανερωθέντος δὲ ἐπ’ [a]ἐσχάτου τῶν χρόνων δι’ ὑμᾶς

I understand this as prior to the Gen 1 creation. Does that make sense?

Jesus of Nazareth was "foreknown" - an idea in God's mind - before the creation of the world. He then came into existence - was manifest - upon "the last of the times" on our behalf.

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