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Containing an examination of the divine testimony concerning the Son of God as a distinct being from the Father.
It is indeed revealed that Christ and his Father are one. John 5:30. But it is no where revealed that the Father and Son are one being. In the very next verse preceding the declaration, "I and my Father are one," Jesus said "My Father — is greater than all." Jesus also prayed, John 17:21, that his disciples "may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee; that they also may be one in us."
Do not all those passages which declare that Christ "came down from heaven;" "from God;" that the Father sent him; evidently imply that he was a distinct being in that very highest character in which only he existed "with God" in heaven, before he "came down from heaven?" If the Spirit of truth has used the language of mortals, in the sense it is invariably used and understood by mortals; can these passages fail to produce the conviction, that he who "came down from heaven," "from God," who was sent by the Father, was, and is a distinct being from the Father who sent him? Is it possible to conceive of the Son coming down from heaven, rather than the Father, if they are both "the same numerical essence?" Or, is it possible to conceive of the Word being "made flesh," rather than the Father, if we conceive of both as one being?
It has been suggested by a late able writer, that the passages which speak of God's sending his Son, etc., are to be understood as referring to the Father's sending him after he was born of the virgin, to execute the mediatorial office. The scriptural representation is, that the Father sent him "into the world." John 3:17, etc. Besides, if the opinion of that writer is correct, that Christ, as the Son of God, did not exist previous to the incarnation; we certainly must expect never to read of any character inferior to the supreme God coming "down from heaven."
Let us now attend to "the faithful witness." John 6:38. For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. John 6:33. For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world. John 8:42. I proceeded forth, and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me. John 13:3. Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God. John 16:28. I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again I leave the world and go to the Father. Well did his disciples say, "Lo, now speakest thou plainly, and speakest no proverb."
Heb. 10:5. Wherefore, when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me, etc. 7. Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me) to do thy will, O God. How plain and forcible is this divine testimony! Is not the last quoted declaration of Christ, represented as being previous to his actually being in the flesh? Was it not the declaration of the Word that "was with God," and "was made flesh?" And is it not the language of inferiority and subjection? Here are two distinct wills spoken of before the incarnation. The will of the Son, in subjection to the will of the Father. Could the "Word" in truth say, "I come to do thy will, O God," rather than his own: or could he afterwards say, "I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will," if his will was the same numerical will with that of the Father? Surely, then, we are plainly taught in the unerring word of truth, that he who came down from heaven to do the will of God, was and is, in his highest character, a distinct being from him whose will he voluntarily came to do.
John 17:5. And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self, with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. Is not the glory, which Christ here prayed for, and for which, consequently, he acknowledges his dependence on the Father, the glory of his highest nature? This is certainly the case; for in his highest nature only did he exist "before the world was." But if the Word was ever dependent on the Father for his highest glory, he must have been always dependent; for supreme independence is immutable. This prayer of Jesus Christ, therefore, proves that the Word is a distinct being from the Father. After this prayer was answered, and Jesus glorified with the same glory he had with the Father before the world was, he is still distinguished from God in the following passages: Rom. 1:7; 1 Cor. 1:3; 11:3; 1 Thes. 3:11. 2 Thes. 3:5; 2:16; etc.
2 Cor. 8:9. For ye know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor, etc. Here the inspired apostle refers to the glory of the Son of God before he was made flesh. Moved with compassion for us, he laid aside this glory; " he became poor." Surely this cannot, in any sense, be applicable to the immutable Jehovah.
1 Cor. 8:6. But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him. Is it possible for any language to prove more explicitly that there is no trinity of persons in the one God, than this? Here we are plainly taught, not only that there is but one God, but that this one God is "the Father." Alas! we have still to say with the apostle, "Howbeit there is not in every man that knowledge;" for some with conscience say to us, the Father alone, is not the one God. The one God, is the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Here, then, are two different testimonies concerning the only living and true God. And which shall we believe? The one inspired by the Holy Ghost; or that which is declared by fallible men? Is there a single passage of scripture which declares that the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are one God? Or that there are three persons in the Godhead? Or that the Father alone is not the one God? If the doctrine of the Trinity were true, should we not find it clearly declared, in at least one passage? The text in 1 John 5:7 does not declare either expressly or implicitly, that the Father, Word, and Holy Ghost are one God, or one being, or one person, or three persons: but simply "these three are one." In what sense they are one, must certainly be determined by other passages of scripture. How plainly is the one Lord Jesus Christ, "by whom are all things," distinguished from the one God, "of whom are all things." And how perfectly does this harmonize with other parts of the divine testimony. "God who created all things by Jesus Christ." Eph. 3:9. By him he saves sinners, and manifests the glory of his grace, "to the principalities and powers in the heavenly places." Eph. 3:10. By him he will judge the world. Acts 17:31. Eph. 4:5, 6. Here again, the "one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all," is distinguished from the "one Lord."
Col. 1:15, 16. Who is the image of the invisible God, the first born of every creature; for by him were all things created, etc. Christ Jesus was the image of God, in his highest nature, for as such he created the world. Does not this expression teach us that he is a distinct being from the Father? Would the declaration, that a being is the image of himself, convey any intelligible idea to the mind? Is the word ever so used? Is not every image a representation of a distinct object? Is it not the likeness of another thing? If the scriptures revealed that the Son is the invisible God, would the apostle have said, he is the image or likeness of the invisible God? When one person bears a striking resemblance to another, we sometimes say, he who has seen one has seen the other. So did our Saviour say, "he that hath seen me, hath seen the Father;" and with the greatest propriety; for "God who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined into our hearts to give the light of the knowledge of his glory in the face of Jesus Christ."
"The first born of every creature." The apostle proves that the Son of God is "the first born of every creature," by his creating all things. His argument is conclusive; for if "God — created all things by Jesus Christ," Jesus Christ must have existed "before all things." The passage also proves that he was the first born of every creature, when he created all things, otherwise, the latter could be no proof of the former. If we refer the phrase "first born of every creature" to his humanity, it makes the apostle argue very absurdly, that Jesus Christ is a man because he made all things. It is conceived that every unbiased mind must perceive that the apostle has as much reference to the highest nature of Christ, when he declares him to be the first born of every creature, as when he declares, that "by him were all things created." And we may as well say, it was his humanity that created all things, as to say, it was his humanity that was the first born of every creature. When it is said, that by him all things were created, it is manifest that he himself is excepted, who is "the only begotten of the Father," and "the beginning of the creation of God." Rev. 3:14.
John 17:3. And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent. Does not "the faithful witness" here plainly distinguish between himself, and "the only true God?" If Jesus Christ is the only true God, and man in one person, has he in this passage borne witness to the truth? Jude 4. Denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ. Here also our Saviour is distinguished from the only Lord God. John 7:17. If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself. John 14:1. Ye believe in God, believe also in me. Rom. 1:7. Grace to you, and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ. Titus 2:13. Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ. The scriptures assure us that the second coming of Christ will be attended with the manifestation of the "glory of his Father," as well as the glory of the Son, and of the holy angels. Matt. 16:27. Rom. 16:27. To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ for ever. Amen. Heb. 12:23, 24. To God the judge of all — and to Jesus the mediator, etc. 1 Tim. 2:5. For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. Rev. 1:9. For the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ. Rev. 5:13. Blessing, and honour, and glory, and power be unto him that sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb for ever and ever. If Jesus Christ or the Lamb, is the very same being that sitteth upon the throne, is not the last clause superfluous and without meaning? Rev. 19:13—16. Here our Saviour is called the "Word of God," the "King of kings and Lord of lords." Are not these titles descriptive of his very highest character? Yet this King of kings and Lord of lords; this Word of God, is plainly distinguished in the 15th verse, from the "Almighty God." While we give to the Son of God the glory due to his name; let us receive his own testimony, that the Father is "the only true God ;" "for of him, and through him, and to him, are all things, to whom be glory for ever. Amen."
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